Free practice questions · NCLEX-PN · Lab values
NCLEX-PN lab values practice questions.
Electrolytes, blood counts, coagulation and renal values, and what a result means for the next action. Ten questions from the Lumen Nursing NCLEX-PN bank, written to the LPN and LVN scope. Answer each one and check it; the rationale explains the key and every other option.
1Matrix gridAdult Health
The nurse is reviewing sodium imbalances with a student. For each finding, specify whether it belongs with a high sodium or with a low sodium.
Finding
High sodium
Low sodium
Dry, sticky mucous membranes
Headache with nausea
Confusion that came on over a day or two
Intense thirst
Muscle cramps with a serum osmolality of 258
Flushed, dry skin
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- Dry, sticky mucous membranes: High sodium
- Headache with nausea: Low sodium
- Confusion that came on over a day or two: Low sodium
- Intense thirst: High sodium
- Muscle cramps with a serum osmolality of 258: Low sodium
- Flushed, dry skin: High sodium
The key, and why
Sodium decides where water sits, so every one of these rows is really about which way water is moving.
When the sodium is high the blood is too salty, so water is pulled out of the cells and into the circulation. The tissues dry out, which is the sticky mouth, the flushed dry skin and the thirst, and the brain shrinks slightly, which makes the client restless and agitated.
When the sodium is low the blood is too dilute, so water moves into the cells. The brain swells, and swelling in a space that cannot expand gives headache, nausea, confusion and eventually seizures.
The osmolality is the tidiest confirmation of all. A low osmolality means dilute blood, and dilute blood means a low sodium.
The teaching point
SODIUM decides WHERE WATER SITS. HIGH sodium PULLS WATER OUT of cells, leaving the client DRY and THIRSTY. LOW sodium lets water move INTO cells, and the BRAIN SWELLS. A LOW OSMOLALITY means DILUTE blood, which means a LOW sodium.
2Multiple choice, single answerMental Health
The nurse is reinforcing teaching with a 33-year-old client with bipolar I disorder who takes lithium carbonate 450 mg orally at 0800 and 2000 and is due for a lithium level at the clinic laboratory tomorrow morning. Which of the following instructions should the nurse reinforce?
"Skip your 2000 dose tonight so that the lithium level tomorrow morning does not come back falsely high."
"Take your 2000 dose tonight as usual, and have the blood drawn at about 0800 tomorrow before your morning dose."
"Have the blood drawn at any time tomorrow that suits you, because a lithium level stays about the same through the day."
"Take your 0800 dose tomorrow, and have the blood drawn about 2 hours later, when the level is at its peak."
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- B: "Take your 2000 dose tonight as usual, and have the blood drawn at about 0800 tomorrow before your morning dose."
The key, and why
Lithium is a mood-stabilizing medicine used to treat bipolar disorder.
Lithium has a narrow therapeutic range, about 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L for maintenance, and the ranges are set for a trough level drawn about 12 hours after the last dose. After each dose the level climbs for a few hours and then falls, so a sample drawn at the wrong time cannot be compared with the range.
For a client who takes doses at 0800 and 2000, the trough falls at about 0800 the next morning, just before the morning dose. The client takes the evening dose as usual and holds the morning dose until the blood has been drawn. A level drawn after the morning dose reads falsely high and could lead to an unneeded dose reduction and a relapse. A skipped evening dose reads falsely low and could lead to a dose increase and toxicity.
Each distractor
Option A skips a dose, which makes the level falsely low. The provider could raise the dose in response and push the client toward toxicity.
Option C assumes the level is flat. Lithium rises and falls with each dose, so the timing of the sample matters.
Option D draws a peak level. The reference range is for a trough, so a peak would look high even when the dose is right.
The teaching point
LITHIUM level = TROUGH, about 12 HOURS after the last dose. Take the EVENING dose, HOLD the MORNING dose until the blood is drawn. Maintenance range = about 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L.
3Multiple choice, single answerPharmacology
A resident of a long-term care facility who has heart failure is due for furosemide 40 mg by mouth at 0900. This morning's potassium is 3.0 mEq/L, and she says her legs have been cramping since last night. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Give the furosemide with a banana and a glass of orange juice to replace the potassium it removes
Withhold the furosemide and report the potassium level and the leg cramps to the registered nurse (RN)
Give the furosemide as scheduled and ask for the potassium to be rechecked with tomorrow's routine blood draw
Start an intravenous potassium chloride infusion from the unit's stock supply before giving the dose
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- B: Withhold the furosemide and report the potassium level and the leg cramps to the registered nurse (RN)
The key, and why
Furosemide is a loop diuretic. It stops the kidney from reabsorbing sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle, water follows the sodium out, and potassium is washed out into the urine along with it. That is why a client on furosemide has the potassium checked, and why a low potassium is the commonest problem the drug causes.
The normal potassium is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L, so 3.0 mEq/L is low. Potassium keeps muscle and nerve cells able to fire normally, and the leg cramps are the muscles showing it. The same shortage affects the heart muscle, where it can cause dangerous irregular rhythms, and in a client with heart failure, who may also take digoxin, that risk is higher still.
Giving another dose of furosemide now would push the potassium lower. So the dose is withheld and the result, with the cramps, goes to the registered nurse (RN), who contacts the provider. The provider decides whether the dose is changed and orders the potassium replacement and a recheck.
Each distractor
Option A treats a real deficit with food. A banana and orange juice are good sources of potassium for a client whose level is normal, but they cannot raise a level of 3.0 mEq/L fast enough, and the furosemide would keep washing it out.
Option C gives the drug that caused the problem and leaves a low potassium unreported for a day. Cramping muscles today mean the heart is exposed today.
Option D is the right idea for the client. It is just not the nurse's to do. Potassium replacement needs a provider's prescription, intravenous potassium is always run on a pump and never pushed, and starting intravenous therapy belongs to the RN, so the nurse reports the need rather than hanging it.
The teaching point
FUROSEMIDE = loop diuretic = WASTES potassium. Normal potassium = 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Below 3.5 + furosemide due = HOLD and REPORT. Low potassium → muscle CRAMPS, weakness, and irregular HEART rhythms. Intravenous potassium = on a PUMP, NEVER pushed, started by the RN.
4Ordered responseNutrition
During a home health visit, the nurse is reinforcing the dietitian's teaching with a 64-year-old client with stage 4 chronic kidney disease who wants to keep eating potatoes. The client's serum potassium is 5.3 mEq/L, and the dietitian has taught the client to leach potatoes, a method that lowers the potassium content of the potato before cooking. Place the following steps in the order the client should perform them.
Drag the responses into the order you want. Drag one back to the list to remove it.
Your order
1Drag a response here
2Drag a response here
3Drag a response here
4Drag a response here
5Drag a response here
Responses
Rinse the cut pieces under warm running water
Drain the potatoes and discard the water they were boiled in
Finish the potatoes by roasting, frying, or mashing them
Boil the pieces in a large pot of unsalted water for about 10 minutes
Peel the potatoes and cut them into thin slices or small cubes
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- 1: Peel the potatoes and cut them into thin slices or small cubes
- 2: Rinse the cut pieces under warm running water
- 3: Boil the pieces in a large pot of unsalted water for about 10 minutes
- 4: Drain the potatoes and discard the water they were boiled in
- 5: Finish the potatoes by roasting, frying, or mashing them
The key, and why
Leaching works because potassium dissolves in water. Peeling removes the skin, which holds much of the potassium, and cutting the potato into thin slices or small cubes exposes far more surface for the potassium to move into the water. A rinse washes the potassium off the cut surfaces.
Boiling the pieces in a large volume of water draws more potassium out, and that water is thrown away, because the potassium is now in it. Only then are the potatoes roasted, fried, or mashed. This method lowers the potassium in potatoes by roughly half, which lets the client keep a favorite food in small portions while staying within the limit.
Each distractor
Boiling whole, unpeeled potatoes before cutting them removes very little potassium, because the skin and the small surface area hold it in.
Roasting or frying the potatoes before boiling them skips the step that removes the potassium, and roasting alone removes none.
Keeping the cooking water for gravy or soup puts the potassium straight back into the meal.
The teaching point
To lower POTASSIUM in potatoes and root vegetables = PEEL, CUT SMALL, RINSE, BOIL in plenty of water, DISCARD the water, then FINISH cooking. The potassium goes INTO THE WATER. Never reuse it. Even prepared this way, PORTIONS still count.
5Multiple choice, single answerPrioritization
A client is admitted with a small bowel obstruction. The client has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, is NPO and has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing. The nurse collects data at 1000. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the registered nurse (RN)?
Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants
Abdominal pain rated 5 out of 10, unchanged since admission
A urine output of 20 mL in the past hour
Greenish fluid draining from the nasogastric tube
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- C: A urine output of 20 mL in the past hour
The key, and why
A bowel obstruction is a partial or complete blockage that stops food, fluid and gas from moving normally through the intestine.
When the small bowel is blocked, fluid that would normally be absorbed builds up in the bowel above the blockage. The client also loses fluid through vomiting and the nasogastric tube. Together these drain the circulating blood volume quickly.
A urine output of 20 mL in an hour is below the minimum of 30 mL, which means the kidneys are not getting enough blood. Fluid balance is the priority, ahead of restoring a normal bowel pattern, because a falling circulating volume leads to shock and kidney injury. The nurse reports the low output so the fluid replacement can be adjusted, and continues to measure intake and output and vital signs.
Each distractor
Option A is expected with a bowel obstruction.
Option B is unchanged pain that is being treated and is expected with the obstruction.
Option D is expected. Bile-stained fluid from above the obstruction drains through the tube.
The teaching point
Bowel obstruction = priority is FLUID BALANCE, not the bowel pattern. Urine under 30 mL/h = kidneys under-perfused, report it. Fluid is trapped in the bowel and lost through vomiting and the NG tube.
6Ordered responseFundamentals
A 52-year-old client with a fasting glucose of 108 mg/dL on two occasions is scheduled for a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test at the outpatient laboratory. The nurse is reinforcing the instructions for the test. Place the following steps in the order the client should complete them.
Drag the responses into the order you want. Drag one back to the list to remove it.
Your order
1Drag a response here
2Drag a response here
3Drag a response here
4Drag a response here
5Drag a response here
Responses
Have a second blood sample drawn 2 hours after finishing the drink
Have a fasting blood sample drawn
Drink a solution containing 75 g of glucose within 5 minutes
Remain seated without eating, drinking, or smoking until the test is over
Fast for at least 8 hours before arriving at the laboratory
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- 1: Fast for at least 8 hours before arriving at the laboratory
- 2: Have a fasting blood sample drawn
- 3: Drink a solution containing 75 g of glucose within 5 minutes
- 4: Remain seated without eating, drinking, or smoking until the test is over
- 5: Have a second blood sample drawn 2 hours after finishing the drink
The key, and why
An oral glucose tolerance test measures how well the body clears a standard load of glucose. A fasting glucose of 100 to 125 mg/dL is in the prediabetes range, and the test shows whether the client's response to glucose has already reached the diabetes range.
The client fasts for at least 8 hours so the starting value is a true fasting level, and that fasting sample is drawn before anything else. The client then drinks 75 g of glucose within 5 minutes so the timing is standard. Activity, food, drink, and smoking all change the glucose level, so the client stays seated and takes nothing until the 2-hour sample is drawn. A 2-hour value of 200 mg/dL or higher means diabetes, and 140 to 199 mg/dL means prediabetes.
Each distractor
Every step belongs in the sequence. Drawing the fasting sample after the drink would make it a post-glucose value, and walking around or eating during the 2 hours would change the 2-hour result.
The teaching point
OGTT = FAST 8 hours → FASTING sample → 75 g glucose drink in 5 MINUTES → SIT quietly → 2-HOUR sample. 2-hour value 200 or higher = DIABETES. 140 to 199 = PREDIABETES.
7Multiple choice, single answerMental Health
A client in a rehabilitation facility is recovering from extensive burns to the face and arms sustained 3 weeks ago. The client has lost 4 kg since the injury, the prealbumin is 12 mg/dL (120 mg/L) and the client has eaten less than a quarter of each meal for 3 days. At lunch the client pushes the tray away and says, "Why bother? I'm never going to look like myself again." Which action should the nurse take first?
Offer a high-calorie, high-protein shake in place of the lunch tray
Explain that the grafts cannot heal without enough protein and calories
Sit down with the client and explore what the client is feeling
Ask the dietitian to add the client's favorite foods to the menu
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- C: Sit down with the client and explore what the client is feeling
The key, and why
A burn is an injury to the skin and deeper tissues caused by heat, chemicals, electricity or radiation.
Two problems are present, and they are linked. The client's nutrition is failing: a large burn can nearly double the need for calories and protein, and a 4-kg loss with a low prealbumin shows intake is far behind. But the client has also just said something that sounds like hopelessness, and the poor eating may be one sign of it.
The statement comes first. "Why bother?" from a client facing a permanent change in appearance can signal grief turning into depression, and it has to be explored before anything else will work. A client who sees no point in recovering will refuse the shake and the favorite foods just as the tray was refused. Sitting down and inviting the client to talk lets the nurse find out how deep the hopelessness goes, ask directly about thoughts of self-harm if needed, and report the statement and the poor intake to the registered nurse (RN). Nutrition support follows straight after.
Each distractor
Option A is the right nutrition idea and will be needed, but it treats the refused meal and skips the statement that explains why it was refused.
Option B lectures the client with facts at a moment of despair. It answers "why bother" with a reason, which tells the client the feeling was not heard.
Option D is a useful step for later and may improve intake, but it does not address the hopelessness behind the refusal.
The teaching point
BURNS = HIGH CALORIE, HIGH PROTEIN. Weight LOSS + LOW prealbumin = intake not keeping up. "Why bother?" after a change in appearance = possible HOPELESSNESS. EXPLORE it and REPORT it. Fix the reason for refusing food before fixing the menu.
8Multiple choice, single answerPrioritization
The nurse in a long-term care facility receives four laboratory results at the start of the shift. Which of the following should the nurse report to the registered nurse (RN) first?
Potassium 6.3 mEq/L
Hemoglobin 10.4 g/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL
White cell count 12,200 per mm3
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- A: Potassium 6.3 mEq/L
The key, and why
All four numbers are outside their ranges, so the sorting question is not which one is abnormal. It is which one can stop a heart before the shift is over.
A potassium of 6.3 is that one. Potassium is what lets heart muscle fire and then reset, and too much of it makes the reset fail. The rhythm goes first and the heart can arrest with very little warning, which is why the result goes straight to the registered nurse rather than into a written entry to be read later.
The other three are real and none of them changes in the next hour. A hemoglobin of 10.4 makes a resident tired. A urea of 28 is barely over. A white count of 12,200 says something is brewing and is worth reporting, in order, after the potassium.
Each distractor
Option B is a mild anemia. It needs following up and it will not kill anyone today.
Option C is a small rise and on its own says very little.
Option D suggests infection somewhere and needs reporting once the potassium has been.
The teaching point
POTASSIUM 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. HIGH POTASSIUM = the heart cannot RESET → ARREST. Rank results by HOW FAST they KILL, not HOW ABNORMAL they look. POTASSIUM, pH, CARBON DIOXIDE, SODIUM and PLATELETS kill within HOURS.
9Multiple choice, single answerCritical Care
A 71-year-old client with acute kidney injury reports no bowel movement for 4 days. The serum creatinine is 4.2 mg/dL, and the urine output has been 15 to 20 mL/hr since admission. The nurse reviews the prescriptions for constipation before the evening medication pass. Which prescription should the nurse question?
Sodium phosphate enema 133 mL rectally once now
Senna 8.6 mg orally at bedtime as needed
Polyethylene glycol 17 g orally once daily
Docusate sodium 100 mg orally twice daily
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- A: Sodium phosphate enema 133 mL rectally once now
The key, and why
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a sudden loss of kidney function that develops over hours to days.
The kidneys are the main route for removing phosphate, so a client with oliguric acute kidney injury already retains it, and the serum phosphorus is often above 4.5 mg/dL. A sodium phosphate enema delivers a large phosphate load, and some of it is absorbed through the bowel wall. With no way to excrete it, the phosphorus climbs higher, binds calcium, and lowers the calcium level, which can cause tetany and dysrhythmias. Phosphate can also deposit in the kidney tissue and add to the injury.
Checking whether a prescription is appropriate for the client is part of the nurse's role before any dose. The nurse holds the enema and contacts the provider for an alternative. Magnesium-based laxatives are avoided for the same reason, because the kidneys cannot clear magnesium either.
Each distractor
Option B, senna, is a stimulant laxative that does not carry an electrolyte load.
Option C, polyethylene glycol, draws water into the bowel without adding phosphate or magnesium and is a safe choice in kidney failure.
Option D, docusate, softens the stool and does not add an electrolyte load.
The teaching point
Kidney failure = AVOID PHOSPHATE enemas and MAGNESIUM laxatives or antacids. Phosphorus UP = calcium DOWN. Safer choices = polyethylene glycol, docusate, senna.
Safety note
Sodium phosphate enemas and oral phosphate preparations can cause life-threatening electrolyte shifts in clients with kidney failure.
10Matrix gridNutrition
A 66-year-old client with SIADH from a lung tumor was admitted 2 days ago with a serum sodium of 121 mEq/L and confusion, and the client has followed an 800-mL daily fluid restriction since admission. The nurse collects the morning data on day 3. For each finding, click to specify if the finding indicates that the client's condition has improved, has not changed, or has declined.
Finding
Improved
Not changed
Declined
Oriented to person, place, and time
Serum sodium 129 mEq/L
Lung sounds clear in all fields, as on admission
Urine output 1,100 mL in 24 hours, up from 600 mL on admission
Weight 1.5 kg (3.3 lb) less than on admission
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- Oriented to person, place, and time: Improved
- Serum sodium 129 mEq/L: Improved
- Lung sounds clear in all fields, as on admission: Not changed
- Urine output 1,100 mL in 24 hours, up from 600 mL on admission: Improved
- Weight 1.5 kg (3.3 lb) less than on admission: Improved
The key, and why
In SIADH the kidneys hold on to water, so the body carries extra water that dilutes the sodium. Fluid restriction lets the kidneys slowly clear that water. When it works, the sodium rises, the weight falls as the extra water leaves, the urine output increases, and the brain recovers as the sodium returns toward normal.
This client shows every one of those changes. The sodium has risen from 121 to 129 mEq/L, about 4 mEq/L a day, which is a safe pace. The confusion has cleared, the weight is down by 1.5 kg, and the urine output has nearly doubled. The restriction is working, and it continues until the sodium is in the normal range of 135 to 145 mEq/L.
Each distractor
A sodium of 129 mEq/L has not declined or stayed the same. It is still low but has risen 8 mEq/L.
Full orientation is an improvement from the confusion on admission, not an unchanged finding.
A weight loss of 1.5 kg is an improvement, because the client is losing retained water.
A larger urine output is an improvement, because the kidneys are now clearing the extra water.
Clear lung sounds have not changed. The water in SIADH is spread through the body's cells, so the lungs were clear on admission and still are.
The teaching point
SIADH improving = SODIUM UP, WEIGHT DOWN, URINE OUTPUT UP, ORIENTATION back. Sodium should rise SLOWLY, about 8 mEq/L or less in 24 hours. Lab values that matter: Serum sodium 135 to 145 mEq/L.
Want to know where you stand, not just the answers?
The free readiness exam is 85 questions on one fixed form, built to the current NCSBN test plan, with a readiness band by section emailed to you. No card. Or open the bank with 30 free practice questions.
More free sets
NCLEX-RN, all formatsTen questions across the NGN formats, mixed sectionsNCLEX-PNTen questions written to the LPN and LVN scopeNursing schoolTen questions across the course bank, A&P to Nursing ResearchNCLEX-PN · CardiacHeart failure, MI, dysrhythmias, cardiac drugsNCLEX-PN · EndocrineDiabetes, insulin, thyroid, adrenal disordersNCLEX-PN · RespiratoryCOPD, asthma, pneumonia, oxygen, chest tubesNCLEX-PN · PediatricsGrowth, development, pediatric presentationsNCLEX-PN · MaternityAntepartum, labor, postpartum, newbornNCLEX-PN · Mental healthCommunication, crisis, substance use, psych medsNCLEX-PN · Dosage calculationDoses, infusion rates, weight-based mathNCLEX-PN · Infection controlPrecautions, isolation, PPE, asepsisNCLEX-PN · Case studiesTwo six-step cases with the client record