Free practice questions

Free NCLEX practice questions, with the reasoning.

Ten questions from the Lumen Nursing NCLEX-RN bank, in the formats the exam uses. Answer each one and check it. The rationale opens underneath: why the key is right, why each other option is wrong, the teaching point, and a safety note where one applies. No account needed.

1Multiple choice, single answerAdult Health

A client asks the nurse why a total thyroidectomy carries a risk of a low calcium. Which response by the nurse is correct?

"Thyroid hormone is what keeps calcium in your bones."
"The four glands that control calcium sit on the back of the thyroid and are easily injured."
"The anesthetic used for this operation binds the calcium in your blood for a day or two."
"You will not be eating for a day, so your calcium will drop."
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
  • B: "The four glands that control calcium sit on the back of the thyroid and are easily injured."
The key, and why
The parathyroid glands are four small glands sitting on the back surface of the thyroid, and they are the glands that control calcium. Taking out the whole thyroid puts them in the surgical field, and they can be bruised, have their blood supply interrupted, or be removed with the specimen. That is why the low calcium of a thyroidectomy arrives on a schedule. It shows up at about 24 to 48 hours rather than in the recovery room, and a nurse who knows the timing is checking for it before the client complains.
Each distractor
Option A confuses the two hormones. Parathyroid hormone controls calcium; thyroid hormone controls metabolism. Option C is not a real effect of anesthesia. Option D is not the mechanism, and a day without food does not drop calcium to the point of tetany.
The teaching point
The PARATHYROIDS sit on the BACK of the THYROID. Four of them. PARATHYROID hormone controls CALCIUM. THYROID hormone controls METABOLISM. The low calcium appears at 24 to 48 HOURS, not immediately. TOTAL thyroidectomy = TETANY risk.
2Multiple choice, single answerMental Health

A 74-year-old client was admitted for depression 2 weeks after the death of his wife. He is tearful and says, "I keep expecting her to walk through the door." Which of the following statements would be appropriate for the nurse to make?

"She is in a better place now, and you'll see her again someday."
"You need to stay busy so you won't keep thinking about her."
"At least you had many good years together before she died."
"It is hard to lose your wife after so many years together."
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
  • D: "It is hard to lose your wife after so many years together."
The key, and why
Grief is the normal emotional response to loss. Two weeks after a death, expecting to see the person, crying and yearning are expected. The nurse's role is to acknowledge the loss and the feelings and to be present, not to fix them. Stating the obvious in an empathic way ("It is hard to lose someone you have loved") is therapeutic. It names the loss, shows understanding and lets the client keep talking about his wife if he wants to.
Each distractor
Option A imposes the nurse's beliefs and offers a comfort the client may not share. It shifts the focus away from his grief. Option B gives advice that encourages avoiding the feelings. Grieving involves thinking about the person, and keeping busy to avoid it can delay healing. Option C minimizes the loss. "At least" statements tell the client that his grief should be smaller than it is.
The teaching point
Grief = ACKNOWLEDGE the loss and the feeling. Stay present. Avoid → "at least," "better place," "stay busy," "I know how you feel." Stating the obvious with empathy can be the best answer.
3Select all that applyPharmacology

A 78-year-old client is 1 day after surgical repair of a hip fracture. The health care provider prescribes enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously every 12 hours, and the medication is supplied in a prefilled syringe. Which actions should the nurse take when giving the injection?

Hold the pinched skin fold for the length of the injection
Aspirate for a blood return before injecting the medication
Massage the site for 1 minute after the needle is removed
Leave the air bubble in the prefilled syringe before injecting
Inject into the abdomen at least 2 inches from the umbilicus
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
  • A: Hold the pinched skin fold for the length of the injection
  • D: Leave the air bubble in the prefilled syringe before injecting
  • E: Inject into the abdomen at least 2 inches from the umbilicus
The key, and why
Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin. It blocks clotting factor Xa and is given after hip fracture surgery because the combination of a long bone injury, surgery, and immobility makes deep vein thrombosis very likely. The technique is designed to prevent bruising and get the full dose in. The air bubble in the prefilled syringe is left in place, because it pushes the last of the drug out of the needle and seals it in the tissue. The injection goes into the fatty tissue of the abdomen, at least 2 inches from the umbilicus, alternating right and left sides. The nurse pinches a fold of skin, inserts the whole needle at 90 degrees, and holds the fold for the whole injection so the drug stays in the subcutaneous layer.
Each distractor
Option B aspirates. Pulling back on the plunger moves the needle in the tissue and tears small vessels, which causes a hematoma. Aspiration is not done with subcutaneous anticoagulants. Option C massages the site, which spreads the drug into injured tissue and causes bruising. The nurse can apply light pressure without rubbing.
The teaching point
ENOXAPARIN = KEEP the air bubble, ABDOMEN at least 2 INCHES from the umbilicus, ROTATE sides, hold the skin FOLD throughout. NO aspirating, NO rubbing.
4Select all that applyCritical Care

The nurse is seeing a 63-year-old client at a follow-up visit 2 weeks after a myocardial infarction. Which of the following statements by the client would require follow-up?

"I've switched to low-fat milk and I'm cooking with much less salt."
"I wake up at 3 in the morning most nights and can't get back to sleep."
"I don't really enjoy it anymore when my grandchildren come to visit."
"What's the point of going to rehab? I'm never going to be the same."
"I was nervous the first time I walked to the mailbox, but it went fine."
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
  • B: "I wake up at 3 in the morning most nights and can't get back to sleep."
  • C: "I don't really enjoy it anymore when my grandchildren come to visit."
  • D: "What's the point of going to rehab? I'm never going to be the same."
The key, and why
Depression develops in about 1 in 5 clients after a myocardial infarction. It is more than sadness, and it matters to the heart as well as the mind, because depressed clients are less likely to take their medications, attend rehabilitation, or change their habits, and their risk of death after an infarction is higher. The keyed statements are its warning signs. Early waking that the client cannot sleep through is a classic sleep change in depression. Losing pleasure in things that used to bring joy, such as grandchildren, is anhedonia. Feeling that recovery is pointless is hopelessness. The nurse screens for depression with a standard tool, asks directly about thoughts of self-harm, and arranges referral.
Each distractor
Option A shows healthy behavior change, which is the opposite of the withdrawal seen in depression. Option E is a normal adjustment. Nervousness about the first activities after an infarction is expected, and the client is pushing through it.
The teaching point
After MI, SCREEN for DEPRESSION, common and linked to WORSE outcomes. Watch for SLEEP change, ANHEDONIA, HOPELESSNESS, skipping rehab, or medications. Hopelessness = ask DIRECTLY about suicide.
5Ordered responseFundamentals

A nurse is preparing to enter the room of a client on contact precautions. Place the steps in the correct order.

Drag the responses into the order you want. Drag one back to the list to remove it.
Your order
1Drag a response here
2Drag a response here
3Drag a response here
Responses
Put on the gown
Perform hand hygiene
Put on gloves
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
  • 1: Perform hand hygiene
  • 2: Put on the gown
  • 3: Put on gloves
The key, and why
Contact precautions call for hand hygiene, then a gown, then gloves, and the order is the sequence rather than an arbitrary list. Hand hygiene comes first because everything else goes on with those hands. The gown goes on next, and it covers the torso and arms, which are what will be against the client and the bed. Gloves go on last so they can be pulled over the gown cuffs, closing the gap at the wrist. Putting gloves on before the gown leaves that wrist gap open. Notice what is not on the contact list. There is no mask and no eye protection, because the organism is not traveling through the air.
The teaching point
CONTACT PPE: HAND HYGIENE, GOWN, GLOVES. No mask. Gloves LAST so they pull OVER the gown cuffs. Also remember, PRIVATE room preferred, DISPOSABLE supplies, DEDICATED equipment and toys stay in the room.
6Matrix multiple responseMental Health

The nurse is preparing medication teaching for clients with anxiety disorders who have new prescriptions for lorazepam, buspirone, or sertraline. For each statement below, click to specify if the statement is consistent with lorazepam, buspirone, or sertraline. Each statement may be consistent with more than one medication.

Finding
Lorazepam
Buspirone
Sertraline
Can cause sexual dysfunction, such as decreased desire or delayed orgasm
Is not a controlled substance
Causes dangerous sedation and slowed breathing when taken with opioids or alcohol
Can cause physical dependence and withdrawal seizures if stopped suddenly
Must be taken every day for several weeks before the full effect is felt
Relieves anxiety within an hour of a dose
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
  • Can cause sexual dysfunction, such as decreased desire or delayed orgasm: Sertraline
  • Is not a controlled substance: Buspirone, Sertraline
  • Causes dangerous sedation and slowed breathing when taken with opioids or alcohol: Lorazepam
  • Can cause physical dependence and withdrawal seizures if stopped suddenly: Lorazepam
  • Must be taken every day for several weeks before the full effect is felt: Buspirone, Sertraline
  • Relieves anxiety within an hour of a dose: Lorazepam
The key, and why
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine. It enhances GABA, the brain's main calming signal, so it works quickly, within an hour by mouth, and it is used short term or for acute anxiety. The cost is dependence: regular use leads to tolerance, and stopping suddenly can cause withdrawal with seizures. It is a controlled substance, and its sedating effect adds to that of opioids and alcohol, which together can stop breathing. Buspirone works on serotonin receptors. It is not sedating, has no dependence risk, and is not controlled, but it takes 2 to 4 weeks of daily dosing to work. Sertraline is an SSRI and a first-line long-term treatment for anxiety disorders. It is not controlled and takes several weeks to reach full effect. Sexual dysfunction is one of its common adverse effects and a frequent reason clients stop it, so the nurse asks about it.
Each distractor
Fast relief within an hour is not buspirone or sertraline, both of which take weeks. The delayed, daily-dosing effect is not lorazepam, which works after a single dose. Dependence with withdrawal seizures is not buspirone or sertraline. Stopping sertraline suddenly can cause discontinuation symptoms, but not dependence with seizures. Dangerous respiratory depression with opioids or alcohol is the warning for benzodiazepines, not for buspirone or sertraline. Sexual dysfunction is typical of SSRIs. Buspirone rarely causes it, and lorazepam is not known for it. Lorazepam is a controlled substance because of its potential for misuse, so it does not belong in the last row.
The teaching point
LORAZEPAM = FAST, short term, DEPENDENCE, CONTROLLED, deadly with OPIOIDS or ALCOHOL. BUSPIRONE = WEEKS, daily, no dependence, no sedation. SERTRALINE = WEEKS, first-line, SEXUAL dysfunction, taper to stop.
7Trend questionCritical Care
Measure | 0600 | 1200 | 1800 Heart rate | 88/min | 84/min | 86/min Blood pressure | 132/78 mm Hg | 128/76 mm Hg | 126/74 mm Hg Intracranial pressure | 14 mm Hg | 12 mm Hg | 11 mm Hg Serum sodium | 139 mEq/L | 141 mEq/L | 143 mEq/L Serum osmolality | 298 mOsm/kg | 312 mOsm/kg | 326 mOsm/kg

A 34-year-old client in the intensive care unit with cerebral edema after a traumatic brain injury is receiving mannitol 1 g/kg IV every 6 hours. Before the 1800 dose, the nurse reviews the flow sheet. Which finding requires follow-up?

Serum sodium 143 mEq/L
Serum osmolality 326 mOsm/kg
Heart rate 86/min
Intracranial pressure 11 mm Hg
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
  • B: Serum osmolality 326 mOsm/kg
The key, and why
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. It raises the serum osmolality, which draws water out of the swollen brain into the blood vessels, and the kidneys then excrete it. A moderate rise in osmolality is the point of the drug, but there is a ceiling. Above about 320 mOsm/kg, more mannitol adds little benefit and the risk of acute kidney injury, dehydration, and electrolyte problems rises. The osmolality has climbed with each dose and is now 326 mOsm/kg, above that limit. The nurse holds the 1800 dose and contacts the provider, who may stop the mannitol or switch to another option such as hypertonic saline. Everything else on the flow sheet shows the drug is working without harm.
Each distractor
Option A, the sodium, rises slightly to 143 mEq/L and stays inside the normal range of 136 to 145 mEq/L. Option C, the heart rate, stays between 84 and 88, which is normal. Option D, the intracranial pressure, has fallen from 14 to 11 mm Hg. That is the effect the mannitol is meant to have.
The teaching point
MANNITOL = check serum OSMOLALITY before EACH dose. Above about 320 mOsm/kg = HOLD and call. Watch urine output, BP, sodium, potassium, and creatinine as well. Lab values that matter: Serum osmolality 275 to 295 mOsm/kg normally, kept under about 320 mOsm/kg during osmotic therapy.
8Multiple response, select NPharmacology

A 56-year-old client with pulmonary tuberculosis has received rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol by directly observed therapy for 5 weeks. At the monthly clinic visit, the nurse reviews the client's assessment findings and record. Select the 3 findings that require follow-up.

Sputum smear negative for acid-fast bacilli at the last visit
Yellow sclerae noted on inspection at today's visit
Weight increase of 1.5 kg (3.3 lb) since treatment began
Anorexia, nausea, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain
Numbness and burning of both feet for the past week
Orange-red urine, sweat, and tears since the first week
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
  • B: Yellow sclerae noted on inspection at today's visit
  • D: Anorexia, nausea, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain
  • E: Numbness and burning of both feet for the past week
The key, and why
Tuberculosis (TB) is a contagious bacterial infection that most often affects the lungs. The first-line drugs for tuberculosis work, but three of them can injure the liver. Isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide are all hepatotoxic, and the risk rises with age, alcohol use, and other liver disease. Loss of appetite, nausea, and pain in the right upper abdomen are the early signs, and yellow sclerae mean bilirubin is already building up. These are reported right away, the doses are held as prescribed, and liver function tests are checked. Numbness and burning in the feet is peripheral neuropathy from isoniazid, which interferes with vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). It is reported so that pyridoxine can be added or increased, and it is usually prevented by giving pyridoxine with isoniazid from the start in clients at risk.
Each distractor
Option A shows the treatment is working, since fewer bacilli are being coughed out. Option C shows the client is regaining the weight that tuberculosis took. Weight loss, not gain, would be the concern. Option F is the expected effect of rifampin, which turns urine, sweat, saliva, and tears orange-red. It is harmless, though it can permanently stain soft contact lenses.
The teaching point
ISONIAZID, RIFAMPIN, PYRAZINAMIDE = LIVER. Anorexia, nausea, RUQ pain, dark urine, YELLOW eyes = report now. ISONIAZID = NEUROPATHY → give PYRIDOXINE (B6). RIFAMPIN = ORANGE body fluids, expected.
9Ordered responseFundamentals

A nurse is preparing to enter an isolation room. Place the personal protective equipment in the order it should be put on.

Drag the responses into the order you want. Drag one back to the list to remove it.
Your order
1Drag a response here
2Drag a response here
3Drag a response here
4Drag a response here
Responses
Put on goggles
Put on the gown
Put on gloves
Put on the mask
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
  • 1: Put on the gown
  • 2: Put on the mask
  • 3: Put on goggles
  • 4: Put on gloves
The key, and why
Gown, mask, goggles, gloves. It works from the body outward and from clean hands to covered hands. The gown goes on first because it is the largest item and needs both hands free to tie at the neck and waist. The mask goes on next and is secured and moulded to the nose, then goggles or a face shield sit over it. Gloves go on last, pulled over the gown cuffs, so there is no bare skin at the wrist and no need to touch the face or adjust anything afterward.
The teaching point
DONNING: GOWN, MASK, GOGGLES, GLOVES. Body outward. Hands are free until the last step. GLOVES LAST, pulled OVER the gown cuffs.
10Multiple response, select NLeadership and Management

A client in soft wrist restraints for pulling at a tracheostomy is being reassessed at 1200. Which of the following findings indicate that the nurse should consider removing the restraints? Select two.

The client follows commands and no longer reaches for the tracheostomy
A trained sitter is available to stay at the bedside with the client
The restraint prescription expires at 1600 and has not been renewed
The client's wrists have no redness and capillary refill is 2 seconds
The unit is busy and staff cannot check the client every 15 minutes
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
  • A: The client follows commands and no longer reaches for the tracheostomy
  • B: A trained sitter is available to stay at the bedside with the client
The key, and why
Restraints are removed as soon as the behavior that required them has ended, or when a less restrictive measure can keep the client safe. A client who now follows commands and no longer reaches for the tracheostomy no longer meets the criteria for restraint. A trained sitter who stays at the bedside is a less restrictive alternative that can protect the airway, with the RN reassessing the client regularly.
Each distractor
Option C is about paperwork. A prescription's expiry time does not decide whether the client still needs restraint; the client's behavior does. Option D shows the restraints are being applied safely, not that they are no longer needed. Option E is a staffing issue. Restraints are not removed or kept because of how busy the unit is.
The teaching point
REMOVE restraints when the BEHAVIOR resolves or a LESS RESTRICTIVE alternative (sitter, family) can keep the client safe. Decisions about restraint are based on the CLIENT, never on staffing or paperwork.

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