Free practice questions · NCLEX-PN · Cardiac
NCLEX-PN cardiac practice questions.
Heart failure, acute coronary syndrome, dysrhythmias, hypertension and the drugs that treat them. Ten questions from the Lumen Nursing NCLEX-PN bank, written to the LPN and LVN scope. Answer each one and check it; the rationale explains the key and every other option.
1Multiple choice, single answerPharmacology
A client in a long-term care facility asks the nurse what digoxin does. Which of the following responses by the nurse is correct?
"It makes your heart beat more strongly and more slowly."
"It thins your blood so it moves through your heart more easily."
"It takes the extra fluid off your lungs through your kidneys."
"It opens up the arteries that feed your heart muscle."
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- A: "It makes your heart beat more strongly and more slowly."
The key, and why
Two effects, and both matter. Digoxin makes each contraction stronger, so the heart empties better, and it slows the rate down, so the heart has longer to fill between beats. A failing heart benefits from both.
That is also why the pulse is counted before every dose. The drug that slows the rate on purpose can slow it too far, and the pulse is the nurse's warning that it has.
Each distractor
Option B describes an anticoagulant, which many clients with atrial fibrillation also take. It is a different drug doing a different job.
Option C describes a diuretic such as furosemide, which is often prescribed alongside digoxin.
Option D describes a nitrate, which is given for chest pain rather than for a failing heart.
The teaching point
DIGOXIN makes the heart beat STRONGER and SLOWER. STRONGER contraction means the heart EMPTIES better. SLOWER rate means more time to FILL. The PULSE is counted before every dose because of the slowing.
2Multiple choice, single answerFundamentals
The nurse is performing hourly neurological checks on a 66-year-old client with atrial fibrillation who was admitted 6 hours ago after a transient ischemic attack. The nurse compares the 1000 findings with those at 0900. Which finding at 1000 would be a priority for the nurse to follow up?
Blood pressure 168/92 mm Hg at 1000, compared with 172/94 mm Hg at 0900
Right hand grip strength 2/5 at 1000, compared with 5/5 at 0900
Pulse 92/min and irregularly irregular at 1000, compared with 88/min and irregularly irregular at 0900
Oriented to person, place, and time at 1000, compared with drowsy but oriented when awakened at 0900
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- B: Right hand grip strength 2/5 at 1000, compared with 5/5 at 0900
The key, and why
A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of stroke-like symptoms caused by a temporary blockage of blood flow to part of the brain.
Muscle strength is graded on a scale of 0 to 5. A grade of 5 is full strength against full resistance, 4 is movement against some resistance, 3 is movement against gravity but not against resistance, 2 is movement only with gravity eliminated, 1 is a flicker or trace of contraction, and 0 is no contraction at all.
A transient ischemic attack causes stroke symptoms that resolve, and it means the client is at high risk of a stroke in the following hours and days. A drop in right hand grip from 5/5 to 2/5 in 1 hour is a new motor deficit. This is a new stroke until proved otherwise. The nurse notes 0900 as the time the client was last known to be well and reports to the registered nurse (RN) immediately, so the stroke team can be called, an emergency CT scan can be done, and the client can be considered for treatment that dissolves or removes the clot.
Each distractor
Option A is a high blood pressure, but it is slightly lower than at 0900. After a transient ischemic attack or an ischemic stroke, a moderately high pressure is often allowed so that the brain stays perfused, and this reading is not a new change.
Option C is the irregularly irregular rhythm of the client's known atrial fibrillation, at a similar rate. Atrial fibrillation is the reason the client is at risk of a clot, but the rhythm itself has not changed.
Option D is drowsiness on being woken that has cleared, with orientation intact both times. It is improvement, not a decline in the level of consciousness.
The teaching point
STRENGTH 0 to 5. 5 = full, 4 = some resistance, 3 = AGAINST GRAVITY, 2 = gravity ELIMINATED, 1 = flicker, 0 = none. Any NEW weakness on a neuro check = stroke alert. Note LAST KNOWN WELL and report IMMEDIATELY.
3Select all that applyNutrition
The home health nurse visits a 74-year-old client with heart failure who has been admitted twice in 3 months for fluid overload. The client says, "I never add salt to anything, so sodium can't be my problem." The nurse reviews the foods and over-the-counter products the client uses on most days. Which of the following items should the nurse recognize as major sources of sodium?
Deli-sliced turkey breast on a sandwich at lunch
Effervescent antacid tablets for heartburn after dinner
Cottage cheese with canned peaches at lunch
Fresh apple slices with unsalted peanut butter as a snack
Bottled soy sauce poured over steamed rice at dinner
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- A: Deli-sliced turkey breast on a sandwich at lunch
- B: Effervescent antacid tablets for heartburn after dinner
- C: Cottage cheese with canned peaches at lunch
- E: Bottled soy sauce poured over steamed rice at dinner
The key, and why
Heart failure is a condition in which the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs.
About three quarters of the sodium most people eat comes from processed and restaurant foods, not from the salt shaker. A client who has stopped salting food can still take in several thousand mg a day without knowing it, and two admissions in 3 months for fluid overload point to an intake problem the client does not see.
Cottage cheese is marketed as a healthy, high-protein food, but salt is added during processing, and a 1-cup serving carries roughly 700 to 900 mg of sodium. Deli-sliced turkey looks lean, yet sliced lunch meats are brined and cured, and a sandwich's worth often holds 500 mg or more before the bread is counted. Condiments are easy to forget, yet a single tablespoon of regular soy sauce carries about 900 mg of sodium, close to half of a 2,000-mg day.
Medications count too. Effervescent antacid tablets are made with sodium bicarbonate, and two tablets can deliver over 1,000 mg of sodium. The nurse reinforces reading the labels of over-the-counter products, suggests the client ask the pharmacist about a low-sodium choice for heartburn, and reports the hidden sources to the registered nurse (RN) so the plan of care can be updated.
Each distractor
Option D, fresh fruit with unsalted peanut butter, is a low-sodium snack. Fresh produce is naturally low in sodium, and the unsalted label means no salt was added.
The teaching point
No salt shaker does NOT mean low sodium. PROCESSED foods carry most of it. HIDDEN sodium = cheese and cottage cheese, DELI meats, canned foods, frozen meals, bread, SOY SAUCE and other condiments. EFFERVESCENT tablets and some antacids = SODIUM BICARBONATE. Check labels on medications too.
4Multiple choice, single answerAdult Health
The nurse is preparing to give digoxin to four clients. Which client's dose should the nurse hold and report?
A 5-month-old infant with an apical pulse of 84/min
A 67-year-old adult with an apical pulse of 64/min
A 6-year-old child with an apical pulse of 88/min
A 15-year-old adolescent with an apical pulse of 72/min
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- A: A 5-month-old infant with an apical pulse of 84/min
The key, and why
Digoxin is a heart medicine that makes each heartbeat stronger and slows the heart rate.
Digoxin slows conduction through the heart, so the apical pulse is counted for a full minute before every dose. The usual hold limits rise with younger age because normal heart rates are faster: under about 60/min in an adult, under about 70/min in a child, and under about 90 to 110/min in an infant. An infant with an apical pulse of 84 is well below the limit, so the nurse holds the dose and reports the heart rate to the health care provider.
Each distractor
Option B is above 60/min, safe for an adult.
Option C is above 70/min, safe for a school-age child.
Option D is above the limits for an adolescent, which are similar to an adult's.
The teaching point
DIGOXIN = count the APICAL pulse for a FULL MINUTE. HOLD if ADULT under 60, CHILD under 70, INFANT under 90 to 110.
5Multiple choice, single answerAdult Health
During a heart failure clinic visit, a client with stable chronic heart failure asks the nurse about exercise at home. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
"Rest in bed or a chair for the next 2 weeks, then start short walks."
"Avoid raising your arms above your head, because that strains your heart."
"Walk briskly for 60 minutes every day to build up your heart muscle."
"Walk a little farther each day, and rest if you become short of breath."
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- D: "Walk a little farther each day, and rest if you become short of breath."
The key, and why
Heart failure is a condition in which the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. Fluid then backs up in the lungs and tissues, causing breathlessness, crackles, swelling and rapid weight gain.
For stable heart failure, regular, gradually increasing activity improves exercise capacity, symptoms and quality of life. Clients are encouraged to walk daily, building time slowly, to pace activities with rest periods and to stop for breathlessness, chest pain or dizziness. Cardiac rehabilitation is recommended. Bed rest is used only during acute decompensation.
Each distractor
Option A prescribes 2 weeks of rest for a stable client, which leads to deconditioning and raises the risk of clots.
Option B is an outdated restriction. Ordinary daily activities, including reaching overhead, are encouraged within the client's tolerance.
Option C starts at a level that is too intense for most clients with heart failure. Activity is built up gradually, often in cardiac rehabilitation.
The teaching point
STABLE heart failure = GRADUALLY increasing activity, PACED with rest, CARDIAC REHAB. STOP for dyspnea, chest pain or dizziness. BED REST only when acutely decompensated.
6Multiple choice, single answerPrioritization
The nurse in a cardiac clinic is reviewing four telephone messages left for the registered nurse (RN). Which message should the nurse report to the RN first?
A client with stable angina who has a headache 30 minutes after taking sublingual nitroglycerin
A client who needs a new prescription because the nitroglycerin tablets expired last month
A client with stable angina who had chest pain while gardening that went away after resting for 3 minutes
A client whose chest pain began at rest 20 minutes ago and is unchanged after 2 nitroglycerin tablets
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- D: A client whose chest pain began at rest 20 minutes ago and is unchanged after 2 nitroglycerin tablets
The key, and why
Chest pain that began at rest and has not improved after 20 minutes and two tablets could be a myocardial infarction or unstable angina. This client needs emergency care now, so the nurse reports this message to the RN first and the client is told to call 911 without delay.
Each distractor
Option A describes the most common side effect of nitroglycerin. It is expected and can be handled after the urgent call.
Option B needs attention today, because expired tablets may not work, but no one is in danger at this moment.
Option C describes typical stable angina that has resolved with rest, the expected pattern.
The teaching point
Chest pain AT REST or NOT RELIEVED by nitroglycerin = EMERGENCY. Call 911. Pain from EXERTION that eases with REST = stable angina. HEADACHE after nitroglycerin = expected.
7Bow tieLeadership and Management
In January, during a power outage after an ice storm, the nurse makes a home health visit to a 78-year-old client with heart failure. A gasoline generator is running in the attached garage with the garage door closed. The client and the spouse both have a headache and nausea, and the client is drowsy and slow to answer questions. The client's vital signs are HR 108/min, RR 22/min, BP 136/80 mm Hg, SpO2 98% on room air and T 97.8° F (36.6° C). Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to track the client's progress.
Each column has its own options. Drag one into a box in that column, or back to its list to remove it.
Actions to take
Actions to take
Actions to take
Potential conditions
Potential condition
Parameters to monitor
Parameters to monitor
Parameters to monitor
Actions to take
Help the client and the spouse out of the house into the fresh air
Report the findings to the registered nurse (RN) at the end of the visit
Call 911 for emergency transport from outside the house
Open the windows of the house and stay inside to finish the visit
Give the client acetaminophen 650 mg orally and help the client lie down
Potential conditions
Viral gastroenteritis
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Heart failure exacerbation
Hypothermia
Parameters to monitor
Respiratory rate and effort
Oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry
Blood glucose level
Daily weight
Level of consciousness
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- Actions to take: Help the client and the spouse out of the house into the fresh air, Call 911 for emergency transport from outside the house
- Potential conditions: Carbon monoxide poisoning
- Parameters to monitor: Level of consciousness, Respiratory rate and effort
The key, and why
Carbon monoxide is an odorless, colorless gas from burning fuel, and a generator run in an attached garage is one of the commonest causes of poisoning after storms. Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin about 200 times more tightly than oxygen, so the blood carries less oxygen to the brain and heart. Headache, nausea and drowsiness in two people in the same house at the same time point to a shared exposure rather than an illness, and a client with heart failure is especially at risk.
The first action is to remove everyone from the source, because every minute inside adds to the exposure. Emergency transport is called from outside, since the client needs high-flow oxygen and testing that only a hospital can provide. While waiting, the nurse watches the level of consciousness and the breathing, because worsening drowsiness or slow, shallow breathing shows the poisoning is progressing.
Each distractor
Giving acetaminophen and having the client lie down treats the headache and leaves the client breathing the gas.
Opening the windows and staying inside keeps everyone exposed while the generator keeps producing carbon monoxide.
Reporting at the end of the visit delays emergency care for a poisoning that can cause brain injury or death.
Heart failure exacerbation would bring shortness of breath, crackles and edema, and would not explain the same symptoms in the spouse.
Viral gastroenteritis would bring vomiting and diarrhea, not drowsiness and confusion, and the timing with the generator fits poisoning.
Hypothermia would bring a low temperature, and the client's temperature is 97.8° F (36.6° C).
Oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry is misleading here. The oximeter cannot tell carboxyhemoglobin from oxyhemoglobin, so it reads a falsely normal value such as 98%.
Blood glucose level does not track carbon monoxide poisoning.
Daily weight tracks fluid in heart failure, not carbon monoxide poisoning.
The teaching point
TWO people, SAME house, HEADACHE + NAUSEA + DROWSINESS = think CARBON MONOXIDE. OUT of the house FIRST, then call 911 from OUTSIDE. Pulse oximetry = FALSELY NORMAL in carbon monoxide poisoning. Generator = OUTSIDE, far from doors and windows. Never in a GARAGE.
8Ordered responseAdult Health
The nurse enters the room of a 69-year-old client admitted with heart failure and finds the client sitting forward with a respiratory rate of 36/min and crackles to the apices. The SpO2 is 84% on 2 L/min by nasal cannula. In which order should the nurse take these actions? Arrange from first to last.
Drag the responses into the order you want. Drag one back to the list to remove it.
Your order
1Drag a response here
2Drag a response here
3Drag a response here
4Drag a response here
Responses
Report the findings to the registered nurse (RN)
Change the oxygen delivery to a nonrebreather mask
Insert the prescribed indwelling urinary catheter
Raise the head of the bed to high Fowler's with the legs dependent
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- 1: Raise the head of the bed to high Fowler's with the legs dependent
- 2: Change the oxygen delivery to a nonrebreather mask
- 3: Report the findings to the registered nurse (RN)
- 4: Insert the prescribed indwelling urinary catheter
The key, and why
The nurse first raises the head of the bed and lets the legs hang down, which reduces venous return to the lungs and makes breathing easier right away. The second step is more oxygen under the facility's emergency oxygen protocol, because the SpO2 of 84% shows that 2 L/min is not enough. The nurse then reports to the RN, who calls the rapid response team, since the client needs an IV loop diuretic and may need noninvasive ventilation. Once the RN gives the diuretic, a large diuresis follows, and the nurse inserts the prescribed catheter so the output can be measured each hour, along with daily weights and potassium monitoring.
Each distractor
Reporting before positioning and oxygen leaves the client struggling while the nurse is away from the bedside. These two steps take seconds.
Inserting the catheter early delays the steps that help breathing, and its purpose is to measure output after the diuretic is given.
Increasing oxygen before positioning is weaker, because sitting the client up takes seconds and makes the oxygen more effective.
The teaching point
PULMONARY EDEMA = RAISE the head of the bed (legs down), then OXYGEN, then REPORT, then MEASURE the OUTPUT. IV loop diuretic = the RN gives it, the nurse MONITORS the response.
9Trend questionCritical Care
Measure | Day 2 | Day 3 | Day 4
Heart rate | 98/min | 92/min | 88/min
Blood pressure | 118/70 mm Hg | 126/74 mm Hg | 132/78 mm Hg
Urine output | 1,350 mL/24 hr | 2,600 mL/24 hr | 2,900 mL/24 hr
Respiratory rate | 16/min | 20/min | 28/min
A 74-year-old client with heart failure is on day 4 on the burn step-down unit after partial-thickness burns over 20% of total body surface area (TBSA). The nurse reviews the flow sheet. Which change should the nurse report to the registered nurse (RN)?
Heart rate decreased from 98/min to 88/min
Blood pressure increased from 118/70 mm Hg to 132/78 mm Hg
Respiratory rate increased from 16/min to 28/min
Urine output increased from 1,350 mL to 2,900 mL in 24 hours
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- C: Respiratory rate increased from 16/min to 28/min
The key, and why
In the first 48 hours after a burn, the capillaries leak plasma into the tissues and the circulating volume falls. After that, the capillaries begin to seal, and the edema fluid moves back into the bloodstream. This is the fluid mobilization phase. The circulating volume rises, the kidneys clear the extra fluid, and the urine output climbs. A falling heart rate, a blood pressure creeping up toward the client's normal, and a large urine output are what the nurse expects to see.
The risk in this phase is the heart that cannot handle the returning fluid. This client has heart failure. If the left ventricle cannot pump out the extra volume, fluid backs up into the lungs, and a rising respiratory rate is often the first sign of pulmonary edema, before crackles or a falling SpO2. The nurse reports the trend to the RN, raises the head of the bed, and checks the SpO2 and the lung sounds.
Each distractor
Option A is the heart rate settling as the volume returns. It stays within the normal range.
Option B is a modest rise that stays within the normal range, as expected when fluid comes back into the vessels.
Option D is the expected diuresis of the fluid mobilization phase. It needs the intake, output and potassium watched, but it is not the warning sign here.
The teaching point
DAY 3 to 5 after a burn = fluid MOBILIZATION. Urine output UP, HR DOWN, BP UP a little = EXPECTED. Heart or kidney disease + RISING respiratory rate = fluid OVERLOAD. Report it.
10Fill in the blank, calculationFundamentals
A 74-year-old resident of a long-term care facility with heart failure has a new irregular pulse. The nurse and the registered nurse (RN) measure the pulse at the same time for 1 full minute, one auscultating the apical pulse and the other palpating the radial pulse. The apical rate is 118/min and the radial rate is 92/min. What is the client's pulse deficit in beats per minute? Record your answer using a whole number.
Type your answer. Use CALCULATOR on the bottom bar if you need it.
Answer it, then check it.
Answer and rationale
Answer
- 26
The key, and why
A pulse deficit is the difference between the apical rate and the radial rate counted at the same time. In an irregular rhythm such as atrial fibrillation, some beats come so early that the ventricle has not had time to fill. Those beats are heard at the apex but are too weak to reach the wrist, so the radial count is lower.
This client has 26 beats every minute that do not produce a pulse at the wrist. A deficit means the heart is working without moving blood well, and a new irregular rhythm is reported to the primary health care provider, who will likely want a 12-lead ECG. Two people counting together for a full minute matters, because an irregular pulse counted for 30 seconds and doubled can be wrong by many beats, and counting one site after the other misses the beats that drop out.
The teaching point
PULSE DEFICIT = APICAL minus RADIAL, counted at the SAME TIME by TWO people for 1 FULL MINUTE. Irregular pulse = count the APICAL pulse for a full 60 seconds. A deficit = beats that do not perfuse. Report it.
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